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ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Sample Questions (Q611-Q616):

NEW QUESTION # 611
An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios.
The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

A. Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.
B. Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.
C. Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.
D. List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Mapping granular scenarios to high-level register items ensures consistency and alignment across different levels of risk management. This approach supportsIntegrated Risk Management Frameworks.

NEW QUESTION # 612
Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

A. Residual risk equals current risk.
B. Residual risk is inadequately recorded.
C. Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.
D. Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits, because it indicates that the risk level is higher than the organization'
s risk appetite or tolerance, and that the risk responses and controls are insufficient or ineffective. Residual
risk is the level of risk remaining in a process or procedure following the implementation of risk controls to
limit or remove it. Escalation is a process that increases the awareness and involvement of higher-level
stakeholders or authorities in a risk issue or situation. Escalation is appropriate when the risk issue or situation
is outside the scope or authority of the current risk owner or manager, and requires the attention or action of
the senior management or the board of directors. Residual risk exceeding acceptable limits is the best situation
to justify escalation, as it implies that the current risk owner or manager cannot manage the risk within the
predefined boundaries or expectations, and that the senior management or the board of directors need to
intervene or approve the risk acceptance or transfer.
Residual risk being inadequately recorded, residual risk remaining after controls have been applied, and
residual risk equaling current risk are all possible situations that may require escalation, but they are not the
best situations, as they do not necessarily indicate that the risk level is higher than the acceptable limits, and
that the senior management or the board of directors need to be involved.

NEW QUESTION # 613
Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A. Performing a due diligence review
B. Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders
C. Reviewing the results of independent audits
D. Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 614
You are the project manager of GHT project. You identified a risk of noncompliance with regulations due to missing of a number of relatively simple procedures.
The response requires creating the missing procedures and implementing them. In which of the following risk response prioritization should this case be categorized?

A. Explanation:
This is categorized as a "quick win" because the allocation of existing resources or a minor resource investment provides measurable benefits. Quick win is very effective and efficient response that addresses medium to high risk.
B. Quick win
C. Business case to be made
D. Deferrals
E. Risk avoidance

Answer: B

Explanation:
is incorrect. "Business case to be made" requires careful analysis and management decisions on investments that are more expensive or difficult risk responses to medium to high risk. Here in this scenario, there is only minor investment that is why, it is not "business case to be made". Answer:D is incorrect. Deferral addresses costly risk response to a low risk, and hence in this specified scenario it is not used. Answer:C is incorrect. Risk avoidance is a type of risk response and not risk response prioritization option.

NEW QUESTION # 615
A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The
risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

A. Senior management
B. Risk manager
C. Internal audit
D. Control owner

Answer: A

Explanation:
A purchase order approval process is a set of procedures that companies use to authorize the purchase of
goods or services from suppliers1. This process typically involves multiple levels of approvals, ensuring that
purchases are compliant with company regulations and policies, and within budget limitations1. Sometimes, a
department may be granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders, for
example, due to urgency, emergency, or special circumstances2. However, such exceptions should not
compromise the effectiveness and integrity of the purchase order approval process, and should be properly
documented and justified2. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the exception has been approved
by senior management, as they are ultimately responsible for setting and overseeing the purchase order
approval process, and for ensuring that the exceptions are reasonable and aligned with the company's
objectives and risk appetite3. Internal audit is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the
purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Internal audit's role is to provide independent assurance
and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the purchase order approval process and its controls, and to
report any issues or recommendations for improvement4. Control owner is not the correct answer, as they are
not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Control owner's role is to
design, implement, and operate the controls that support the purchase order approval process, and to monitor
and report on the performance and compliance of the controls5. Risk manager is not the correct answer, as
they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Risk manager's role
is to identify, assess, and mitigate the risks associated with the purchase order approval process, and to
communicate and report on the risk status and issues6. References = 1: A Step-by-Step Guide to a Purchase
Order Approval Process2: Purchase Order Exceptions | Fordham3: Purchase Order (PO) Approval Process
and Approval Workflow - ProcureDesk4: IT Risk Resources | ISACA5: CRISC Resources [updated 2021] |
Infosec6: Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and
Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.

NEW QUESTION # 616
......

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